ITEC 626 Final Exam

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True or False (20 points)

T F 1. Typically cloud computing services will be rented from an external company that hosts and manages them.

T F 2. The service-oriented architecture (SOA) is a form of client/server computing.

T F 3. The client/server architecture is a blend of decentralized and centralized computing.

T F 4. A cloud broker evaluates the services provided by a cloud provider in terms of security controls, privacy impact, performance, and so on.

T F 5. NIST defines three service models that can be viewed as nested service alternatives: SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS.

T F 6. Typically, an IP address refers to an individual host on a particular network.

T F 7. In an internet environment, multicasting is an easier undertaking.

T F 8. One way to assure that the packet is received by all members of the group is to broadcast a copy of each packet to each network in the configuration, over the least-cost route for each network.

T F 9. Both the broadcast and multiple unicast strategies are inefficient because they generate unnecessary copies of the source packet.

T F 10. IGMP takes advantage of the broadcast nature of a LAN to provide an efficient technique for the exchange of information among multiple hosts and routers.

T F 11. The idea of universal personal telecommunications refers to the capability of using one’s terminal in a wide variety of environments to connect to information services.

T F 12. Satellite communications is comparable in importance to optical fiber in the evolution of telecommunications and data communications.

T F 13. In contrast to earlier generations, 4G systems do not support traditional circuit-switched telephony service.

T F 14. In 4G networks, IP telephony is the norm as are IP packet-switched connections for Internet access.

T F 15. 4G networks, devices, and services are expected to evolve slowly over the next decade.

T F 16. A macro virus is a larger and more self-contained than an ordinary virus.

T F 17. An encrypted virus can only be triggered after an external software program is triggered to decrypt the virus.

T F 18. A stealth virus is explicitly designed to hide itself from detection by antivirus software.

T F 19. A worm is a program that can replicate itself and send copies from computer to computer across network connections.

T F 20. Security threats can be classified based on how a given attack provides a threat to a given objective.

Multiple Choices (15 points)

  1. The magnitude of delay variation, called ________ , is a critical factor in realtime applications.
    A. jitter
    B. stuttering
    C. supernetting
    D. latency
  2. Peak download rate for a 4G network is __________.
    A. 1 Gbps
    B. 100 Mbps
    C. 500 Mbps
    D. 384 kbps
  3. Peak download rate for a 3G network is _________.
    A. 1 Gbps
    B. 100 Mbps
    C. 500 Mbps
    D. 384 kbps
  4. Wireless communications is likely to be viewed as an essential part of an enterprise network infrastructure when:
    A. Mobile communication is needed
    B. Communication must take place in a hostile or difficult terrain that makes wired communication difficult or impossible
    C. Communication facilities must be installed at low initial cost
    D. The same information must be broadcast to many locations
  5. The network vehicle used for worm propagation is ___________.
    A. electronic mail facility
    B. remote execution capability
    C. remote login capability
    D. all of the above
  6. A worm that can attack a variety of OSs rather than a single OS such as Windows is ______________.
    A. multiplatform
    B. multi-exploit
    C. polymorphic
    D. metamorphic
  7. The primary mechanism used in implementing denial-of-service attacks is the:
    A. worm
    B. Trojan horse
    C. bot
    D. all of the above
  8. Which of the following is a type of scanning strategy?
    A. hit list
    B. topological
    C. local subnet
    D. all of the above
  9. SNMP defines the ___________________ to be sent from a manager to an agent and vice versa.
    A. format of the packets
    B. encoding of the packets
    C. number of packets
    D. none of the above
  10. All objects managed by SNMP are given an object identifier. The object identifier always starts with _______.
    D. none of the above
  11. SNMP uses the services of UDP on two well-known ports, _______ and _______.
    A. 161; 162
    B. 160; 161
    C. 160; 162
    D. none of the above
  12. Which of the following detailed performance parameters might be included in an SLA?
    A. service performance parameters, such as expected throughput, drop probability, and latency
    B. constraints on the ingress and egress points at which the service is provided, indicating the scope of the service
    C. traffic profiles that must be adhered to for the requested service to be provided
    D. all of the above
  13. A description of the nature of service to be provided, the expected performance level of the service, and the process for monitoring and reporting the service level, is information that is typically included in a _________ .
    A. SLA
    B. QoS
    C. LAN
    D. DS
  14. Which of the following is NOT a property of SDN?
    A. Abstracting control from forwarding lets administrators dynamically adjust network-wide traffic flow to meet changing needs.
    B. Network control is not programmable because it needs to maintain a global view of the network.
    C. SDN lets network managers configure, manage, secure, and optimize network resources very quickly via dynamic, automated SDN programs.
    D. When implemented through open standards, SDN simplifies network design and operation because instructions are provided by SDN controllers instead of multiple, vendor-specific devices and protocols.
  15. What is major drawback of anomaly detection IDS?
    A. These are very slow at detection
    B. It generates many false alarms
    C. It doesn’t detect novel attacks
    D. None of these

III. Please answer the following questions in details (8 points each)

(1) What are the features of Software Defined Network (SDN) and how does SDN separate software from hardware?

(2) What are the features and architecture of SNMP (including v1, v2, and v3)?

(3) What are the features of Resource ReSerVation Protocol (RSVP)?

(4) Does the malware reside on the host and perform hacking remotely? Explain.

(5) Compare the difference between IPv4 and IPv6 security.

IV. Please explain the following concepts (5 points each)

(1) What is IDS and its difference from IPS?

(2) What is VPN and what are the types of VPN?

(3) What is DFCP and how it is related to QoS?

(4) Explain the differences between Fog Computing and Cloud Computing.

(5) Which layer(s) carry out QoS execution? And what are the Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) related to QoS?

Course: ITEC 626 Information Systems Infrastructure
School: University System of Maryland


  • 12/08/2017
  • 45
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